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Cisco CCNP Data Center (DC) Certification Overview
The CCNP Data Center certification and training program offers comprehensive certification and Professional-level skills focused on the data center solutions, technologies and best practices to design, implement, and manage a modern data center infrastructure. CCNP Data Center Certification is a hot subject of Cisco Certification.
Prerequisites Of Data Center (CCNP DC) Certification
Valid Cisco CCNA Data Center certification or any Cisco CCIE certification can act as a prerequisite.
Design or Troubleshooting Path For CCNP Data Center Certification
When decided to get the CCNP Data Center, Cisco lets you choose either a design or troubleshooting track.
300-175 DCUCI Implementing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing (DCUCI)
300-165 DCII Implementing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure
300-170 DCVAI Implementing Cisco Data Center Virtualization and Automation
300-160 DCID Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing
300-175 DCUCI Implementing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing (DCUCI)
300-165 DCII Implementing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure
300-170 DCVAI Implementing Cisco Data Center Virtualization and Automation
300-180 DCIT Troubleshooting Cisco Data Center Infrastructure
300-160 DCID Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure Exam Details
Cisco 300-160 DCID Exam becomes more and more popular. The Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure (DCID) exam (300-160) is a 90-minute, 60–70 question assessment. This exam is one of the exams associated with the CCNP Data Center Certification. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of Cisco data center infrastructure design pertaining to deployment requirements and options for network connectivity, infrastructure, storage network, compute connectivity, and compute resource parameters.
If you want to pass your 300-160 DCID exam, you should master the following topics:
1.0 Data Center Network Connectivity Design 24%
2.0 Data Center Infrastructure Design 21%
3.0 Data Center Storage Network Design 21%
4.0 Data Center Compute Connectivity Design 19%
5.0 Data Center Compute Resource Parameters Design 15%
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What is the maximum number of switches that can be stacked using Cisco StackWise?
A network engineer wants to add a new switch to an existing switch stack. Which configuration must be added to the new switch before it can be added to the switch stack?
A. No configuration must be added.
B. stack ID
C. IP address
D. VLAN information
E. VTP information
What percentage of bandwidth is reduced when a stack cable is broken?
After an EtherChannel is configured between two Cisco switches, interface port channel 1 is in the down/down state. Switch A is configured with channel-group 1 mode active, while Switch B is configured with channel-group 1 mode desirable. Why is the EtherChannel bundle not working?
A. The switches are using mismatched EtherChannel negotiation modes.
B. The switch ports are not configured in trunking mode.
C. LACP priority must be configured on both switches.
D. The channel group identifier must be different for Switch A and Switch B.
Which statement about LLDP-MED is true?
A. LLDP-MED is an extension to LLDP that operates between endpoint devices and network devices.
B. LLDP-MED is an extension to LLDP that operates only between network devices.
C. LLDP-MED is an extension to LLDP that operates only between endpoint devices.
D. LLDP-MED is an extension to LLDP that operates between routers that run BGP.
Which statement about Cisco devices learning about each other through Cisco Discovery Protocol is true?
A. Each device sends periodic advertisements to multicast address 01:00:0C:CC:CC:CC.
B. Each device broadcasts periodic advertisements to all of its neighbors.
C. Each device sends periodic advertisements to a central device that builds the network topology.
D. Each device sends periodic advertisements to all IP addresses in its ARP table.
Which option lists the information that is contained in a Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisement?
A. native VLAN IDs, port-duplex, hardware platform
B. native VLAN IDs, port-duplex, memory errors
C. native VLAN IDs, memory errors, hardware platform
D. port-duplex, hardware platform, memory errors
Which option describes a limitation of LLDP?
A. LLDP cannot provide information about VTP.
B. LLDP does not support TLVs.
C. LLDP can discover only Windows servers.
D. LLDP can discover up to two devices per port.
Which statement about the UDLD protocol is true?
A. UDLD is a Cisco-proprietary Layer 2 protocol that enables devices to monitor the physical status of links and detect unidirectional failures.
B. UDLD is a Cisco-proprietary Layer 2 protocol that enables devices to advertise their identity, capabilities, and neighbors on a local area network.
C. UDLD is a standardized Layer 2 protocol that enables devices to monitor the physical status of links and detect unidirectional failures.
D. UDLD is a standardized Layer 2 protocol that enables devices to advertise their identity, capabilities, and neighbors on a local area network.
Which option lists the modes that are available for configuring UDLD on a Cisco switch?
A. normal and aggressive
B. active and aggressive
C. normal and active
D. normal and passive
E. normal and standby
What is the default interval at which Cisco devices send Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements?
A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 120 seconds
D. 300 seconds
Which statement about Cisco Discovery Protocol configuration on a Cisco switch is true?
A. CDP is enabled by default and can be disabled globally with the command no cdp run.
B. CDP is disabled by default and can be enabled globally with the command cdp enable.
C. CDP is enabled by default and can be disabled globally with the command no cdp enable.
D. CDP is disabled by default and can be enabled globally with the command cdp run.
Which SDM template is the most appropriate for a Layer 2 switch that provides connectivity to a large number of clients?
In a Cisco switch, what is the default period of time after which a MAC address ages out and is discarded?
A. 100 seconds
B. 180 seconds
C. 300 seconds
D. 600 seconds
If a network engineer applies the command mac-address-table notification mac-move on a Cisco switch port, when is a syslog message generated?
A. A MAC address or host moves between different switch ports.
B. A new MAC address is added to the content-addressable memory.
C. A new MAC address is removed from the content-addressable memory.
D. More than 64 MAC addresses are added to the content-addressable memory.
Which option is a possible cause for an errdisabled interface?
A. routing loop
B. cable unplugged
C. STP loop guard
D. security violation
What is the default value for the errdisable recovery interval in a Cisco switch?
A. 30 seconds
B. 100 seconds
C. 300 seconds
D. 600 seconds
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Which item describes the failure scenario called a “split-brain” in the Cisco Unified Computing System?
A. failure of the Cisco Unified Computing System L1-L2 network
B. failure of a Cisco Unified Computing System Chassis Management Controller
C. failure of a Cisco Unified Computing System I/O module
D. failure of a Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect
E. failure of a Cisco Unified Computing System Chassis Management Switch
Which two are true concerning the role-based access control specifics of a Cisco Unified Computing System? (Choose two.)
A. Disabled local user accounts are deleted from the database.
B. A locally authenticated user account is any user account that is authenticated through LDAP, RADIUS, or TACACS+.
C. If a user maintains a local user account and a remote user account simultaneously, the roles that are defined in the local user account override those that are maintained in the remote user account.
D. By default, user accounts expire after 90 days; a warning message will be generated 10 days prior to expiration.
E. A user that is assigned one or more roles will be allowed the privileges that are consistent across all of the assigned roles.
F. All roles include read access to all configuration settings in the Cisco Unified Computing System domain.
Which two are true concerning authorization within a Cisco Unified Computing System? (Choose two.)
A. A role defines a collection of privileges that determines which actions a user can take in Cisco Unified Computing System Manager.
B. Authorization consists of three components (roles, password policy, and locales) that are based on which features and resources the user will not have access to.
C. Customized roles can be configured on and downloaded from remote AAA servers.
D. The logical resources, pools and policies, are grouped into roles.
E. If the service profile cannot find available resources, it will search in the parent organization for pools and resources.
Which two are true with respect to the upgrade process for the Cisco Unified Computing System? (Choose two.)
A. For easier manageability, Cisco provides one full bundle that contains the firmware images for all Cisco Unified Computing System components.
B. You can choose from FTP, TFTP, SCP, and HTTP to copy the bundle image from a remote file system.
C. When the bundle image is downloaded, it must be transferred to the flash file system of the active fabric interconnect.
D. When the download is successful, Cisco Unified Computing System Manager expands the individual files from the archive and installs them in the correct flash file system partition.
E. It is strongly recommended that you activate all components in all chassis at one time.
F. The I/O module, CIMC, and adaptors update process operates strictly on the backup partition of Flash for a given component.
Which Cisco UCS firmwares are contained in the Cisco UCS Infrastructure software bundle? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco UCS BIOS
B. Cisco UCS fabric interconnects firmware
C. Cisco UCS adapters
D. Cisco UCS Manager
E. Cisco I/O module firmware
F. Cisco IMC
Which Cisco UCS Manager feature allows you to specify multiple LDAP servers for user authentication?
B. LDAP Provider Group
C. Authentication Domain
Which UCS components firmwares are contained in the UCS Infrastructure software bundle?
A. UCS BIOS
B. UCS Fabric Interconnects
C. UCS Adapters
D. UCS Manager
E. IO Module
F. Cisco IMC
Which backup option must be used for a system restore?
A. full state
B. all configuration
C. system configuration
D. logical configuration
Which protocol is not supported for Cisco UCS backups and imports?
Which two items can you provision in a vHBA Template? (Choose two.)
A. Max Data Field Size
B. SCSI I/O Queues
C. FCoE VLAN
D. vHBA Interrupt Mode
E. Stats Threshold Policy
F. FLOGI Timeout
Which option describes the possible result of a customer configuring a server pool that contains Cisco UCS B200 M2 and B250 M2 blades?
A. A service profile cannot migrate automatically from one blade to another blade within the server pool due to hardware failure.
B. You must decommission a blade server for the associated service profile to migrate to another blade in the server pool successfully.
C. You must uncheck the Restrict Migration box in the service profile to allow service profile migration between blades in the server pool.
D. After service profile migration, the server fails in boot from SAN due to differences in PCI device IDs.
Which two options occur when a server discovery policy is invoked? (Choose two.)
A. executes the qualification in the server discovery policy against the server
B. applies the scrub policy to the server
C. analyzes the inventory of the server
D. assigns the server to the selected organization, if configured
E. creates a service profile for the server with the identity burned into the server at time of manufacture
If a customer wants to maximize the capability of server mobility with the Cisco UCS deployment, what two options are Cisco recommended? (Choose two.)
A. Configure a server inheritance policy.
B. Configure a Virtual Media boot.
C. Configure a hardware-based service profile with burned-in addresses and identities.
D. Configure boot from SAN.
E. Configure service profiles with resource pools.
You have a Cisco UCS B200 M2 server configured with 12 4-GB DDR3 1333-MHz dual-voltage memory DIMMs. You learned that the server memory speed is running at 1066 MHz instead.
How can you configure the server to run at maximum memory speed?
A. You cannot configure memory speed of 1333 MHz. The maximum memory speed of a Cisco UCS B200 M2 server with 12 4-GB DIMM is 1066 MHz.
B. Memory speed of the ESX host is configurable on VMware vCenter.
C. Create a BIOS policy. In the RAS Memory BIOS settings, select Performance Mode for LV DDR Mode.
D. On the CIMC of the Cisco UCS B200 M2, select 1333 MHz in the Memory Speed option.
Your systems engineer has determined all of the firmware versions that the server operating system supports.
What steps are taken on Cisco UCS to avoid manual firmware upgrades on the blade servers?
A. Use Cisco UCS Manager firmware management to upgrade all Cisco UCS blade servers to the same target firmware versions.
B. Configure host firmware package and management firmware package policies and associate the firmware policies with the service profiles.
C. Create a BIOS policy and define the host firmware package and management firmware package.
D. Configure host firmware package and management firmware package policies and associate the firmware policies with the server pools.
When you create a vHBA, what will you achieve by enabling persistent binding?
A. This feature allows the binding of the SCSI targets to the vHBA, even across reboots.
B. This feature allows the binding of the same WWPN from the pool to the vHBA, even across reboots.
C. This feature allows the binding of the same WWNN from the pool to the vHBA, even across reboots.
D. This feature allows the binding of the Fibre Channel uplink to the vHBA, even across reboots.
Which two tasks enable jumbo frames on a Cisco UCS system? (Choose two.)
A. In the LAN cloud on Cisco UCS Manager, configure MTU 9000 in the uplink interfaces.
B. In the LAN cloud on Cisco UCS Manager, enable jumbo frames in Fabric A and Fabric B.
C. In the LAN cloud on Cisco UCS Manager, configure MTU 9000 in the VLAN.
D. In the LAN cloud on Cisco UCS Manager, define a QoS system class with MTU 9000.
E. In the service profile, configure MTU 9000 in the vNIC.
F. In the service profile, configure MTU 9000 in the virtual machine.
G. In the service profile, configure MTU 9000 in the uplink interfaces.
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What is the maximum number of routers that each OSPF area (including the backbone) should contain?
What is the maximum number of neighbors that a router should have in an OSPF area?
Which technology allows multiple instances of a routing table to coexist on the same router simultaneously?
B. Cisco virtual router
C. Instanced virtuer router
Which first-hop redundancy protocol that was designed by Cisco allows packet load sharing among groups of redundant routers?
Which routing protocol provides the fastest convergence and greatest flexibility within a campus environment?
A network manager wants to securely connect a new remote site to the existing headquarters site using a VPN technology that meets security requirements. Which VPN technology should be used?
C. remote-access VPN
D. L2TP VPN
Which type of connectivity is required for VPLS?
A. Full mesh
B. Partial mesh
Which protocol should be run on the LAN side of two edge routers (that are terminating primary and backup WAN circuits) to provide quick failover in case of primary WAN circuit failure?
Which protocol is best when there are circuit connections with two different ISPs in a multihoming scenario ?
Private lines make use of which connection type based on cell switching?
B. ISP MPLS VPN
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Which twostatements about migrating a network from pvst+ to rapid pvst+ are true?(Choose two)
A. Coreswitches must be migrated before the access layer switches
B. Becauserapid-PVST+ is backward-incompatible with PVST+, all switches on the networkmust be migrated at once in a single maintenance window
C. Accesslayer switches must be migrated before the core switches
D. If the LANruns in mixed mode automatically during the migration, convergence time is lessthan when all switches are in PVST+ mode
E. Root guardand BPDU guard are disabled automatically during the migration
F. UplinkFastand BackboneFast are disabled automatically during the migration
Which command must you configure on a device so it can establish an IPv6-in-IPv4IPSec tunnel?
A. vrf contextvrf-name
B. mpls ip
C. ip cef
Refer to theexhibit.
Which statement about the 192.168.100.0/24 destination network is true?
A. Theneighbors fail to meet the feasibility condition.
B. Thereporting distance for the feasible successor is 49000
C. Thereporting distance for the successor is 409600
D. Thereported distance is too small to support a feasible successor route
Which two statements about AT0M are true? (Choose two)
A. When usingAToM, the IP precedence field is not copied to the MPLS packet
B. It providessupport for L2VPN features on ATM interfaces
C. Itencapsulates Layer 2 frames at the egress PE
D. AToMsupports connecting different L2 technologies using internetworking option
E. Theloopback address of the PE router must be either /24 or /32
What are the two types of Embedded Event Manager policies?
Which traffic-monitoring class allows PfR to run on platforms with limitedborder-router functionality?
C. fastfailover monitoring
Refer to the exhibit.
SW1 and SW2 are connected to routers R1 and R2 via their L2 trunk ports. Which commandcan you enter on the switches to allow the hosts on VLAN 20 to join themulticast group 22.214.171.124 via the upstream L2 ports?
A. ip igmpsnooping vlan 20 mrouter interface gigabitethernet0/0
B. ip igmpsnooping vlan 20 static 126.96.36.199 interface gigabitethernet0/0
C. igmpsnooping querier 188.8.131.52
D. ip igmpsnooping vlan 20 mrouter learn cgmp
Which twostatements about IGMP filtering are true? (Choose two)
A. It supportsIGMPv3 join messages.
B. By default,an interface can join a maximum of 4 IGMP groups
C. It supportsgeneral IGMP Queries
D. It can beconfigured on SVIs and on a per-port basis
E. Multicastprofiles can be configured to filter multicast joins
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300-165 Implementing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure|Cisco 300-165 Real Dumps|CCNP Data Center 300-165 Exam Dumps
Which statement about the implementation of Cisco TrustSec on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches is true?
A. While SGACL enforcement and SGT propagation are supported on the M and F modules, 802.1AE (MACsec) support is available only on the M module.
B. SGT Exchange Protocol is required to propagate the SGTs across F modules that lack hardware support for Cisco TrustSec.
C. AAA authentication and authorization is supported using TACACS or RADIUS to a Cisco Secure Access Control Server.
D. Both Cisco TrustSec and 802.1X can be configured on an F or M module interface.
How is a dynamic vNIC allocated?
A. Dynamic vNICs are assigned to VMs in vCenter.
B. Dynamic vNICs can only be bound to the service profile through an updating template.
C. Dynamic vNICs are bound directly to a service profile.
D. Dynamic vNICs are assigned by binding a port profile to the service profile.
The Connectivity Management Processor monitors the active supervisor module on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch and will reboot the device in the event of a lights-out management issue. However, which option includes features that provide similar benefits in the absence of the Connectivity Management Processor?
A. high-availability functionality from features such as vPC and NSF
B. traditional system connectivity models like SNMP, GUI, or SSH
C. Cisco FabricPath
D. VDC failover
Which statement about SNMP support on Cisco Nexus switches is true?
A. Cisco NX-OS only supports SNMP over IPv4.
B. Cisco NX-OS supports one instance of the SNMP per VDC.
C. SNMP is not VRF-aware.
D. SNMP requires the LAN_ENTERPRISE_SERVICES_PKG license.
E. Only users belonging to the network operator RBAC role can assign SNMP groups.
In the dynamic vNIC creation wizard, why are choices for Protection important?
A. They allow reserve vNICs to be allocated out of the spares pool.
B. They enable hardware-based failover.
C. They select the primary fabric association for dynamic vNICs.
D. They allow dynamic vNICs to be reserved for fabric failover.
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300-135 Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks Exam|Cisco Certification 300-135 Test|CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135 TSHOOT Dumps
The fault condition is related to which technology?
B. IPv4 OSPF Routing
C. IPv6 OSPF Routing
D. IPV4 and IPV6 Interoperability
E. IPv4 layer 3 security
R1 and R2 OSPF neighbor.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two)
(Output from show ip ospf neighbors on 2 routers, one of them shows FULL/DR, the other FULL/-, you need to know how were they configured and will they exchange routes)
A. They are not neighbors
B. R1 (non-DR) will not update its routes to R2
C. Router R2 is configured with ospf point-to-point command (R2 is the router that shows as FULL/-)
D. They need to be configured as OSPF NBMA
E. R2 should be configured as stub
What is the solution of the fault condition?
A. Under the ip access-list edge_security configuration add the permit ip 184.108.40.206 0.0.0.3 any command
B. Under the interface Serial0/0/1 enter the ip access-group edge_security out command.
C. Under the ip access-list edge_security configuration delete the deny ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any command
D. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration delete the ip access-group edge_security in command and enter the ip access group edge_security out command
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